Aletheia



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Question: does the government have the right to kill someone as punishment?

Scripture: Exodus 21:23-25; Leviticus 24:17; Romans 13:1-5

The death penalty or the ability of the ruling authority to punish by death has been disputed for years. The bible talks enough about it to tell us what is right and what is wrong very plainly. Exodus 21:23-25 says "But if there is serious injury, you are to take life for life, eye for eye, tooth for tooth, hand for hand, foot for foot, burn for burn, wound for wound, bruise for bruise." This law was established by God not to give us a right or freedom to retaliate to any form of violence, but rather to punish in a way that fits the crime. Although this may seem like a never-ending circle, if I kill you, then someone kills me, then someone kills that person ad infinitum. However, at the time it would be a one-time punishment on one person except in on particular situation. Numbers 35:19-21 in the KJV says "The revenger of blood himself shall slay the murderer: when he meeteth him, he shall slay him. But if he thrust him of hatred, or hurl at him by laying of wait, that he die; or in enmity smite him with his hand, that he die: he that smote him shall surely be put to death; for he is a murderer: the revenger of blood shall slay the murderer, when he meeteth him." Thus, if a person whom God uses to punish a murderer by death kills the murderer in hate or anger, he is therefore a murderer and to be put to death also.

In Leviticus 24:17, God commands that "if anyone takes the life of a human being, he must be put to death." What is to put him to death then? Are the animals? Is God supposed to? Does God zap every murderer or person guilty of punishment by death? I haven't seen it happen. Consider then that he must be put to death, active word being "put." Killed by whom? Killed by people, of course. In the paragraph before, it talks about how a blasphemer is to be killed. They are to be killed by "the entire assembly." In today's terms, this would be society. Consider also Genesis 9:6 "Whoever sheds the blood of man, by man shall his blood be shed; for in the image of God has God made man." That puts it plain and simple.

So far, we know that revenge is to be taken for the shedding of blood and that the revenge is to be taken by man, but not man alone can take revenge. Does the government therefore have the right to kill or not? Yes, the government does because of Romans 13: 4. It says, "For he (the ruler) is God's servant to do you good. But if you do wrong, be afraid, for he does not bear the sword for nothing. He is God's servant, an agent of wrath to bring punishment on the wrongdoer." It is as plain and simple as that.

The process of conclusions is made as thus: blood must be shed for blood; that avenging of blood is to be done by man, but not exclusively; the man or men that God has enabled to be an instrument of wrath and revenge is the ruler or ruling authority. Does the government have the right to kill someone as punishment, not of itself, but God uses it to carry out His judgment, punishment and wrath.

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